PRACTICE SET I
1. A typical angiosperm anther is ______
and ______
(1) Bilobed, tetrasporangiate
(2) Bilobed, monosporangiate
(3) Bilobed, bisporangiate
(4) Tetralobed, monosporangiate
Ans: (1) Bilobed, tetrasporangiate
2. The innermost wall layer of anther: –
(1) Is nutritive in function
(2) Helps in dehiscence of anther
(3) Is haploid and protective in function
(4) Forms microspores
Ans: (1) Is nutritive in function
3. The process of formation of microspores
from a pollen mother cell is called: –
(1) Megasporogenesis
(2) Microsporogenesis
(3) Megagametogenesis
(4) Microgametogenesis
Ans: (2) Microsporogenesis
4. The pollen grain represents: –
(1) Male gamete
(2) Male gametophyte
(3) Microsporophyll
(4) Microsporangium
Ans: (2) Male gametophyte
5. The most resistant organic material
known which makes up the outermost
Layer of pollen wall is: –
(1) Pectin (2) Cellulose
(3) Sporopollenin (4) Lignin
Ans: (3) Sporopollenin
6. Choose the correct option w.r.t. the
function of the germ pore: –
(1) It allows growth of pollen tube
(2) It allows water absorption in seed
(3) It helps dehiscence of pollen grain
(4) More than one option are correct
Ans: (1) It allows growth of pollen tube
7. The thin and continuous wall layer of
pollen is: –
(1) Exine (2) Intine
(3) Germ pore (4) Endothecium
Ans: (2) Intine
8. The two-celled stage of mature pollen
grain consists of: –
(1) Vegetative cell, generative cell
(2) Vegetative cell, one male gamete
(3) Two male gametes
(4) Generative cell, one male gamete
Ans: (1) Vegetative cell, generative cell
9. In 60% angiosperms, the pollen grains are shed at: –
(1) Four-celled stage
(2) Three-celled stage
(3) Two-celled stage
(4) Five-celled stage
Ans: (3) Two-celled stage
10. Pollen allergy is caused by pollens of: –
(1) Rose (2) Clematis
(3) Parthenium (4) Sunflower
Ans: (3) Parthenium
11. The pollen viability period of rice and
pea respectively, is: –
(1) 30 minutes and several months
(2) Several months and 30 minutes
(3) Few days and few months
(4) Few days in both the cases
Ans: (1) 30 minutes and several months
12. Which part of the reproductive structure
produces both enzyme & hormones –
(1) Archesporium (2) middle layer
(3) Tapetum (4) Endo thecium
Ans: (3) Tapetum
13. Tapetum is: –
(1)Parietal in origin usually the inner
most layer of anther wall.
(2) Modified endothecium of antherwall
(3) Outer most layer of sporogenous
tissue modificat
(4) Parietal in origin and is the inner
most layer of ovule wallion
Ans:(1)Parietal in origin usually the inner
most layer of anther wall.
14. Example of polyploid tissue present in
an angiosperm plant is
(1) Perisperm (2) Embryo
(3) Tapetum (4) Placenta
Ans: (3) Tapetum
15. A microspore is a first cell of
(1) Female gametophyte
(2) Male gametophyte
(3) Sporophyte
(4) Anther
Ans:(2) Male gametophyte
16. Anther is generally composed of
(1) One sporangium
(2) Two sporangium
(3) Three sporangium
(4) Four sporangium
Ans: (4) Four sporangium
17. How many cells or nuclei are present in
male gametophyte of angiosperms –
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Many
Ans: (3) Three
18. How many and what type of male gametes are produced by the male gametophyte of angiosperms
(1) One,, multi-cilliated
(2) Two, biciliated
(3) Two, multi-ciliated
(4) Two, non-motile
Ans:(4) Two, non-motile
19. Most reduced size gametophyte is of
(1) Bryophytes (2) Pteridophyte
(3) Gymnosperm (4) Angiosperm
Ans: (4) Angiosperm
20. Essential whorls of a flowers
(1) Calyx and Corolla
(2) Corolla and Gynoecium
(3) Androecium and Gynoecium
(4) All the above
Ans: (2) Corolla and Gynoecium
21. Microsporophyll of Angiosperms is known as:
(1) Androecium (2) Anther
(3) Filament (4) Stamen
Ans: (4) Stamen
22. Main function of endothecium (in anther) is:
(1) Mechanical (2) Nutritive
(3) Dehiscence (4) None of above
Ans: (3) Dehiscence
23. Which of the following is wrong statement:
(1) Monothecous anthers are found in Malvaceae family
(2) Middle layer is ephemeral
(3) Amoeboid tapetum releases ubisch bodies
(4) Banana is a monocarpic plant
Ans: (3) Amoeboid tapetum releases ubisch bodies
24. Endothecium, middle layer and tapetum in anther are derived from: –
(1) Primary sporogenous layer
(2) Primary parietal layer
(3) Both
(4) None of the above
Ans: (2) Primary parietal layer
25. How many pollen sacs are present in a mature anther?
(1) 4 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) 2
Ans: (4) 2
26. The special features of the endothecium of anther of angiosperms: –
(1) Radially elongated
(2) Thickening of cellulose
(3) Hygroscopic
(4) All of the above
Ans: (4) All of the above
27. Each sporogenous tissue is potential pollen or microspore mother* cell; division taking place in sporogenous cell is: –
(1) Meiosis (2) Mitosis
(3) Endomitosis (4) Amitosis
Ans: (1) Meiosis
28. Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies & bronchial afflictions in some people often leading to chronic respiratory disorder such as: –
(1) Asthma (2) Bronchitis
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Emphysema
Ans: (3) Both (1) & (2)
29. In a pollengrain the small cell which is spindle shaped, with dense cytoplasm is: –
(1) Vegetative cell (2)Generative cell
(3) Tube cell (4) None
Ans: (2)Generative cell
30. Integumented megasporangium is: –
(1) Ovule (2) Pollen sac
(3) Pollen grain (4) Embryo sac
Ans: (1) Ovule
31. The nutritive tissue present in the ovule is called: –
(1) Nucellus (2) Funicle
(3) Embryo (4) Integuments
Ans: (1) Nucellus
32. The number of embryo sac in an ovule is generally: –
(1) One (2) Many
(3) Four (4) Three
Ans: (1) One
33. The role of triple fusion in angiosperms is to produce: –
(1) Cotyledons (2) PEN
(3) Endocarp (4) Seed
Ans: (2) PEN
34. The ploidy level of nucellus and female gametophyte respectively is: –
(1) n, n (2) n, 2n
(3) 2n, n (4) 2n, 2n
Ans: (3) 2n, n
35. The number of nuclei in a mature embryo sac are: –
(1) Eight (2) Seven
(3) Six (4) Four
Ans: (1) Eight
36. The Largest cell of the mature embryo sac is:
(1) Antipodal cells (2) Synergids
(3) Central cell (4) Egg cell
Ans: (3) Central cell
37. The structures which guide the pollen tube into synergid is:
(1) Antipodals
(2) Germ pore
(3) Aril
(4) Filiform apparatus
Ans: (4) Filiform apparatus
38. Which one is female gametophyte of angiosperm plants
(1) Embryo (2) Embryosac
(3) Endosperm (4) Pistil
Ans:(2) Embryosac
39. The embryo sac of Angiosperm derives it’s nutrition from-
(1) Sporogenous (2) Tapetum
(3) Epithecium (4) Nucellus
Ans: (4) Nucellus
40. The functional megaspore in Polygonum type embryo sac formation belongs to end
(1) Micropylar and (2) Chalazal
(3) funicle (4) Integumgeus
Ans: (2) Chalazal
41. Go through the figure showing a dissected flower of Hibiscus showing pistil.
Identify A, B, C and D repectively.
w—o
(1) Hilum.carpel, ovary and thalamus
(2) Stigma, style, ovary and thalamus
(3) Anther, style, ovary and placenta
(4) Stigma, style, Gynophore and anthopore
Ans: (2) Stigma, style, ovary and thalamus
42. Just before fertilization, the dip.: .: structure in the ovule of Angiosperm ij
(1) Pollen tube
(2) Secondary nucleus
(3) Synergids
(4) Antipodals
Ans: (2) Secondary nucleus
43. Filiform apparatus are found in
(1) Antipodal cell
(2) Egg cell
(3) Secondary nucleus
(4) Synergids
Ans: (4) Synergids
44. Megasporophyll is called:
(1) Gynoecium (2) Carpel
(3) Ovary (4) Stigma
Ans: (2) Carpel
45. Which structure of the ovule will change after fertilization?
(1) Embryosac
(2) Integuments
(3) Central cell
(4) All of the above
Ans: (4) All of the above
46. The type of cells under going meiosis in the flowers are
(1) Microspore mother cell & megaspore mother cell
(2) Ovule & stamen
(3) Tapetal cells
(4) Placental cell
Ans: (1) Microspore mother cell & megaspore mother cell
47. A typical angiosperm embryosac at maturity have:
(1) 7 celled – 8 nucleate
(2) 9 celled – 7 nucleate
(3) 3 celled – 3 nucleate
(4) 2 celled – 2 nucleate
Ans: (1) 7 celled – 8 nucleate
48. Arising from placenta megasporangium which is common^ known as:
(1) Ovule
(2) Ovary
(3) Ovarian cavity
(4) Stamen
Ans: (1) Ovule
49. Geitonogamy is: –
(1) Genetically Self Pollination
(2) Ecologically Self Pollination
(3) Genetically cross Pollination
(4) Functionally cross Pollination
Ans: (1) Genetically Self Pollination
50. Which of the following plant provides safe place to insect for laying eggs?
(1) Sage plant
(2) Amorphophallus
(3) Ophrys
(4) Mango
Ans: (1) Sage plant
51. Examples of water pollinated flowers are :
(1) Zostera, Lotus, water lily
(2) Lotus, Vallisneria, Hydrilla
(3) Potamogeton, Vallisneria, Lotus
(4) Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Zostera
Ans: (4) Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Zostera
52. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of insect pollinated flowers?
(1) Fragrance
(2) Nectaries
(3) Foul odour
(4)Mucilaginous covering on pollen grains
Ans: (4)Mucilaginous covering on pollen grains
53. After culturing the anther of a plants few diploid plant were got along with haploid plant. Which of the following part might have given rise to diploid plant –
(1) Vegetative cell of pollen
(2) Exine of pollen wall
(3) Cells of anther wall
(4) Generative cell of pollen
Ans: (3) Cells of anther wall
54. Which type of gametes are present in angiosperms?
(1) Flagellated
(2) Motile
(3) Non-motile
(4) None of these
Ans: (3) Non-motile
55. Cleistogamous flower produce assured seed-set even in the absence of pollinator, why?
(1) Because they have fragrance
(2) Because they remain open
(3) Because they are autogamous
(4) Because they are coloured
Ans: (3) Because they are autogamous
56. Repeated self pollination over the generation produces:
(1) New species
(2) Better progenies
(3) Inbreeding depression
(4) Elimination of weak traits
Ans: (1) New species
57. Chasmogamy refers to the condition where
(1) Flowers remains closed
(2) Flowers absent
(3) Flowers open
(4) Flowers gamopetalous
Ans: (3) Flowers open
58. When pollen grains of a flower are transferred to stigma of another flower on a different plant, the process is called –
(1) Geitonogamy (2) Xenogamy
(3) Autogamy (4) Homogamy
Ans: (2) Xenogamy
59. When anther and stigma mature at the same time is called as
(1) Dichogamy (2) Allogamy
(3) Xenogamy (4) Homogamy
Ans: (4) Homogamy
60. Self-pollination means
(1) Transfer of pollen from anthers to stigma in the same flowers
(2) Transfer of pollen from one flowers to another on the different plant
(3) Occurrence of male and female sex organ in the same flowers
(4) Germination of pollen
Ans: (1) Transfer of pollen from anthers to stigma in the same flowers
61. Maize is best example of:
(1) Anemophily (2) Ornithophily
(3) Entomophily (4) Hydrophily
Ans: (1) Anemophily
62. The most common mode of pollination is –
(1) Entomophily (2) Anemophily
(3) Hydrophily (4) None of the above
Ans: (1) Entomophily
63. Insect pollinated flowers usually possess
(1) Brightly coloured pollens in large quantity
(2) Dry pollens with smooth surface
(3) Sticky pollen and rough surface stigma
(4) Light coloured scented pollen covered with nectar
Ans: (3) Sticky pollen and rough surface stigma
64. A close relation between a flower and a pollinating agent is best examplified by
(1) Cocos (2) Salvia
(3) Yucca (4) Avena
Ans: (1) Cocos
65. Chasmo-cliestogamous flowers are present in:
(1) Viola (common pansy)
(2) Oxalis
(3) Commelina
(4) All the above
Ans: (4) All the above
66. The central cell after triple fusion becomes the: –
(1) PEC (3) Endosperm
(2) PEN (4) Embryo
Ans: (1) PEC
67. Which is the most logical sequence with reference to the life cycle of angiosperm
(1) Germination, endosperm formation, seed dispersal, double fertilization.
(2) Cleavage, fertilization, grafting, fruit formation
(3)Pollination fertilization, seed formation & germination
(4) Maturation, mitosis, differentiation
Ans: (3)Pollination fertilization, seed formation & germination
68. The diploid and triploid product of double fertilization respectively are:-
(1) Zygote and primary endosperm nucleus
(2) Endosperm and cotyledons
(3) Embryo and perisperm
(4) Zygote and scutellum
Ans: (1) Zygote and primary endosperm nucleus
69. Pollen robbers: –
(1) Consume pollen or nectar
(2) Are effective in bringing about pollination
(3) Do not visit flowers for pollen
(4) Take pollen from other insects
Ans: (1) Consume pollen or nectar
70. Dioecious condition prevents: –
(1) Autogamy (2) Geitonogamy
(3) Xenogamy (4) Both (1) & (2)
Ans: (4) Both (1) & (2)
71. Double endosperm is found in: –
(1) Wheat (2) Rice
(3) Pea (4) Coconut
Ans: (4) Coconut
72. Free nuclear division in an angiosperm takes place during
(1) Gamete formation
(2) Endosperm formation
(3) Embryo formation
(4) Flower formation
Ans: (1) Gamete formation
73. The single cotyledon in monocots is: –
(1) Scutellum which is lateral in position
(2) Aleurone layer which is terminal in position
(3) Scutellum which is centrally placed
(4) Epiblast which is haploid and lateral in position
Ans: (1) Scutellum which is lateral in position
74. The sheath enclosing plumule and radicle respectively in monocot seed are: –
(1) Coleoptile and coleorhiza
(2) Coleorhiza and coleoptile
(3) Scutellum and epiblast
(4) Aleurone layer and pericarp
Ans: (1) Coleoptile and coleorhiza
75. Single shield shape cotyledon of grass is known as:
(1) Tigellum (2) Scutellum
(3) Coleoptile (4) None
Ans: (2) Scutellum
76. Epicotyl has a shoot apex and few leaf primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar structure known as: –
(1) Coleoptide (2) Coleorhiza
(3) Scutellum (4) Tigellum
Ans: (1) Coleoptide
77. Ex-albuminous seeds are found in: –
(1) Wheat, pea, groundnut
(2) Castor, pea, groundnut
(3) Pea, groundnut, beans
(4) Wheat, castor, rice
Ans: (3) Pea, groundnut, beans
78. Perispermic seeds are: –
(1) Castor, sunflower
(2) Black pepper, beet
(3) Maize, beet
(4) Barley, maize
Ans: (3) Maize, beet
79. Perisperm is
(1) Persistant nucellus in seed
(2) Ovule wall
(3) Ovule coat
(4) Fossil of haustoria
Ans: (1) Persistant nucellus in seed
80. Micropyle in seed helps in the entry of
(1) Male gamete (2) Pollen tube
(3) Water & air (4) All
Ans: (3) Water & air
81. Although in most of species fruits are result of fertilisation, there are a few species in which fruit develop without fertilisation – process is known as:
(1) Parthenocarpy
(2) Parthenogenesis
(3) Amphimixis
(4) Apomixis
Ans: (1) Parthenocarpy
82. Non-albuminous seeds are present in: –
(1) Pisum (Pea)
(2) Ground nut (Arachis)
(3) Both
(4) None
Ans: (3) Both
83. In many plants, the sexual reproduction replaced by asexual reproduction it is called
(1) Semigamy (2) Apospory
(3) Apomixis (4) Amphimixis
Ans: (3) Apomixis
84. Production of seed without fertilization is called: –
(1) Parthenocarpy
(2) Parthenogenesis
(3) Apomixis
(4) Apogamy
Ans: (3) Apomixis
85. Which of the following is a parthenocarpy fruit?
(1) Banana (2) Apple
(3) Strawberry (4) Pomegranate
Ans: (1) Banana
PRACTICE SET II
1. Pollen grains are generally in outline measuring micrometers in diameter: –
(1) Spherical, 25-50 (2) Oblong, 25-50
(3) Oval, 10-25 (4) Spherical, 75-100
Ans: (1) Spherical, 25-50
2. The vegetative cell is: –
(1) Small, has large irregularly shaped nucleus
(2) Large, has large irregularly shaped nucleus
(3) Large with spindle shaped nucleus
(4) Small, spindle shaped nucleus
Ans: (2) Large, has large irregularly shaped nucleus
3. Choose the odd one w.r.t. gynoecium: –
(1) Gynoecium represents the female reproductive part of flower
(2) The gynoecium may be syncarpous
orapocarpous
(3) The number of ovules in papaya and mango is one
(4) The ovules are attached to placenta.
Ans: (3) The number of ovules in papaya and mango is one
4. The number of mitotic generations required to form a mature embryo sac in most of the flowering plants is: –
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
Ans: (3) Three
5. The types of flowers which always produce seeds even in the absence of
pollinators: –
(1) Chasmogamous flowers (2) Cleistogamous flowers
(3) Bisexual flowers (4) Unisexual flowers
Ans: (2) Cleistogamous flowers
6. The type of pollination which brings genetically different types of pollen on the stigma is: –
(1) Autogamy (2) Xenogamy
(3) Geitonogamy (4) Cleistogamy
Ans: (2) Xenogamy
7. Feathery stigma and versatile anthers are characteristic of: –
(1) Wind pollinated flowers (2) Insect pollinated flowers
(3) Water pollinated flowers (4) Bat pollinated flowers
Ans: (1) Wind pollinated flowers
8. Hydrophily is limited to 30 genera which
are mostly: –
(1) Gymnosperms (2) Monocots
(3) Dicots (4) More than one option is correct
Ans: (2) Monocots
9. Common floral reward provided by plants to pollinator are: –
(1) Nector and pollen (2) Pollen and enzymes
(3) Hormones and nectar (4) All of these
Ans: (1) Nector and pollen
10. Pollen pistil interaction is: –
(1) Chemically mediated process
(2) Dynamic process
(3) Genetically controlled process
(4) More than one option is correct
Ans: (4) More than one option is correct
11. The cylindrical portion below the level of
cotyledons on embryonal axis is: –
(1) Epicotyl (2) Hypocotyl
(3) Radicle (4) Plumule
Ans: (2) Hypocotyl
12. Suitable environmental conditions for
seed germination are: –
(1) Adequate moisture, light, anaerobic conditions (2) Adequate moisture, low temperature, light
(3) Adequate moisture, suitable temperature and oxygen (4) Light, water, absence of oxygen
Ans: (3) Adequate moisture, suitable temperature and oxygen
13. Pericarp is dry in: –
(1) Guava, mango, mustard (2) Mango, groundnut, orange
(3) Groundnut, mustard (4) Orange, guava, mango
Ans: (3) Groundnut, mustard
14. Mark the incorrect statement: –
(1) Outer three layers of anther wall are protective in function
(2) Sporogenous tissue, occupies the centre of each microsporangium
(3) Cells of tapetum and endothecium show increase in DNA contents by endomitosis and polyteny
(4) Ploidy level of microspore tetrad is haploid
Ans: (3) Cells of tapetum and endothecium show increase in DNA contents by endomitosis and polyteny
15. Which of the following statement is applicable for all flowering plants?
(1) Monosiphonous pollen tube
(2) Non-motile and morphologically dissimilar gemetes
(3) Presence of pollinium
(4) Division of generative cell after pollination
Ans: (2) Non-motile and morphologically dissimilar gemetes
16. Which is incorrect statement?
I. Each cell of sporogenous tissue in anther is capable of giving rise to microspore tetrad.
II. The pollen grain represent male gametophyte.
III. Pollen grains are usually triangular and 10-15 mm in diameter.
IV. Sporopollenin in one of the most resistance organic material which can be destroyed only by strong acids and alkali.
(1) I, II are incorrect but III, IV are correct
(2) III, IV are incorrect but I, II are correct
(3) I, III are incorrect but II, IV are correct
(4) I, IV are correct but I, III are incorrect
Ans: (2) III, IV are incorrect but I, II are correct
17. In papaya, male and female flowers are present on different plants. It permits: –
(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Xenogamy
Ans: (4) Xenogamy
18. Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts a, b, c and d Correctly identify: –
a b c d
(1) Endothecium Tapetum Microspore mother cell Middle layers
(2) Tapetum Endothecium Microspore mother cell Middle layers
(3) Endothecium Middle layer Tapetum Microspore mother cell
(4) Endothecium Microspore mother layer Middle layer Tapetum
Ans: (3) Endothecium Middle layer Tapetum Microspore mother cell
19. Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts a, b, c and d Correctly identify: –d
a b c d
(1) Synergids Antipodal cells Polar nuclei Filiform apparatus
(2) Filiform apparatus Egg Polar nuclei Nucellus
(3) (4) Filiform apparatus Synergids Synergids Polar Nuclei Polar nuclei Filiform apparatus Antipodal cell Antipodal pell
Ans: (3)
20. The devices to discourage self pollination are:
(1) Pollen release and sigma receptivity is not synchronised
(2) Anther and stigma are placed at different position
(3) Rejection of pollen by stigma of the same flowers
(4) All of these
Ans: (4) All of these
21. In monoecious plant like castor and maize:-
(1) Autogamy and allogamy are not prevented
(2) Geitonogamy is prevented
(3) Autogamy is not prevented
(4) Geitonogamy is not prevented
Ans: (4) Geitonogamy is not prevented
22. Select incorrect statement (w.r.t. artificial hybridisation): –
(1) Emasculation is removal of anther in their mature condition from bisexual flower
(2) Emasculation is not required in male sterile plants
(3) Unisexual female flower is bagged in bud condition to prevent contamination
(4) Emasculated flowers are bagged in bud condition
Ans: (1) Emasculation is removal of anther in their mature condition from bisexual flower
23. Which of the following incorrect statement: –
(1) Double fertilization is unique to angiosperms
(2) Sequoia, a gymnosperm, is one of the tallest tree
(3) Exine has apertures where sporopollenin is present
(4) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
Ans: (3) Exine has apertures where sporopollenin is present
24.
Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts a, b, c and d. Correct Oidentify: –
a b c d
(1) Suspensor Radicle Cotyledons Plumule
(2) Plumule Cotyledons Radicle Suspensor
(3) Suspensor Plumule Radicle Cotyledons
(4) Radicle Plumule Cotyledons Suspensor
Ans: (1) Suspensor Radicle Cotyledons Plumule
25. Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts a, b, c and d. Correctly identify: –b
(1) a Coleoptile b c d
Scutellum Radicle Coleorrhiza
Coleorrhiza Radicle Scutellum Coleoptile
(3) Scutellum Coleorrhiza Radicle Coleoptile
(4) Radicle Scutellum Coleoptile Suspensor
Ans: (1)
26. Choose the correct option from the following-
I. Dehydration and dormancy of mature seed are crucial for seed storage.
II. Seed of Lupinus arcticus is the oldest one which germinated after 2000 year
III. Orchid seed is one of largest seed in plant kingdom
IV. Seeds of parasitic plants Orobanche and Striga are tiny seeds.
(1) I, II are correct but III, IV are incorrect
(2) I, IV are correct but II, III are incorrect
(3) III, IV are correct but I, II are incorrect
(4) II, III are correct but I, IV are incorrect
Ans: (2) I, IV are correct but II, III are incorrect
27. Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts a, b, c and d. Correct identify:
a b c d
(1) Thalamus Seed Endocarp Mesocarp
(2) Thalamus Seed Mesocarp Endocarp
(3) Mesocarp Seed Endocarp Thalamus
(4) Endocarp Seed Thalamus Mesocarp
Ans: (1) Thalamus Seed Endocarp Mesocarp
28. Choose the correct option from the following statements: –
I. Apomixis is form of asexual reproduction which mimics sexual reproduction.
II. In Apomixis seeds develop either from diploid egg cell or from cells of nucellus.
III. Seeds collected from hybrids plant maintain hybrid character for a longer times.
IV. In Apomixis, there is segregation of character
(1) All are correct
(2) All are correct
(3) Only I and II are correct
(4) Only II, IV are correct
Ans: (3) Only I and II are correct
29. Pollen tube develops from
(1) Generative cell
(2) Male gametes
(3) Vegetative cell
(4) Vegetative nucleus
Ans: (3) Vegetative cell
30. Longest pollen tube is found in: (1) Wheat (2) Maize
(3) Barley (4) Rice
Ans: (2) Maize
31. Tegmen of the seed develops from:
(1) Perisperm
(2) Funiculum
(3) Inner integument
(4) uter integument
Ans: (3) Inner integument
32. Example of Epihydrophily is: –
(1) Zostera (2) Vallisneria
(3) Ceratophyllum (4) Nymphea
Ans: (2) Vallisneria
33. Pollination in Yucca plant takes place by: (1) Honey bee (2) Butter fly
(3) Pronuba (4) Bird
Ans: (3) Pronuba
34. The primary Endosperm nucleus in Polygonum type of Embryosac is:
(1) Haploid (2) Diploid
(3) Triploid (4) Tetraploid
Ans: (3) Triploid
35. Which of the following nuclei participate in double fertilization?
(1) The egg
(2) The secondary nucleus
(3) The two male nuclei
(4) All of the above
Ans: (4) All of the above
36. Perisperm is –
(1) Degenerate secondary nucleus
(2) Remnant of nucellus
(3) Peripheral part of endosperm
(4) Degenerate synergids
Ans: (2) Remnant of nucellus
37. The main embryo developed from the structure formed as a result of
(1) Double fertilization
(2) Triple fusion
(3) Syngamy
(4) fusion of two polar nuclei of an embryosac
Ans: (3) Syngamy
38. After fertilization the outer integument of ovule changes into –
(1) Testa (2) Tegmen
(3) Fruit (4) Seed
Ans: (1) Testa
39. In angiosperms, the pollen tube enters through the micropyle, therefore fertilization is –
(1) Porogamous (2) Chalazogamous
(3) Mesogamous (4) Basigamous
Ans: (1) Porogamous
40. After fertilization, the seed is developed from –
(1) Ovule (2) Ovary
(3) Embryo (4) Endosperm
Ans: (1) Ovule
41. Double fertilization means –
(1) Fusion of male gametes and ovum
(2) Fusion of two polar bodies
(3) A male gamete fused with egg and second male gamete fused with secondary nucleus
(4) All the above
Ans: (3) A male gamete fused with egg and second male gamete fused with secondary nucleus
42. Development of embryo occurs from –
(1) Two polar nuclei of embryosac
(2) Secondary nucleus and male gametes
(3) Egg cell and male gamete
(4) Synergids
Ans: (3) Egg cell and male gamete
43. The fusion product of polar nuclei and male gamete is :-
(1) Nucellus
(2) Primary endosperm nucleus
(3) Zygote
(4) Secondary nucleus
Ans: (2) Primary endosperm nucleus
44. When a diploid male plant is crossed with a tetraploid female plant, the endosperm will be :
(1) Diploid (2) Triploid
(3) Tetraploid (4) Pentaploid
Ans: (3) Tetraploid
45. Stigma of the entomophilous flower is: -(1) Sticky (2) Rough
(3) Hairy (4) Smooth
Ans: (2) Rough
46. Synergids help in –
(1) Pollen entry into embryosac
(2) Endosperm formation
(3) Embryosac nutrition
(4) Both (1) & (3)
Ans: (4) Both (1) & (3)
47. Go through the following statements :
I. Flowers are small. They are often packed in inflorescence.
II. Flowers are colourless, nectarless and odouless
III. Well exposed stamens
IV. Pollen grains are produced in large numbers which are light and non-sticky
V. Flower often have a single ovule in each ovary
VI. Stigma is large and often feathery The above contrivances favour :
(1) Cross pollination
(2) Anemophily (pollination by wind)
(3) Ornithophily (pollination by birds)
(4) Entemophily (pollination by insects)
Ans: (2) Anemophily (pollination by wind)
48. The function of suspensor is –
(1) To provide water
(2) To provide oxygen
(3) To thrust the embryo towards endosperm to provide more food
(4) To suck food
Ans: (3) To thrust the embryo towards endosperm to provide more food
49. Tigellum is known as –
(1) Testa
(2) Tegmen
(3) Both of the above
(4) Main axis of the embryo
Ans: (4) Main axis of the embryo
50. Haploid, diploid and triploid conditions respectively can be traced in –
(1) Egg, Nucellus, Endosperm
(2) Antipodal, Egg, Endosperm
(3) Endosperm, Nucellus, Synergids
(4) Antipodal, Synergids & Integuments
Ans: (1) Egg, Nucellus, Endosperm
51. If the leaf of Angiospermic plant has 46 number of chromosomes then how many chromosomes number will be there in endosperm –
(1) 46 (2) 23
(3) 69 (4) 138
Ans: (3) 69
52. If the nucellus cell of an angiosperm contains 24 chromosomes the number of chromosomes present in pollen grain, endosperm & embryo will be –
(1) 24, 36, 24 (2) 12, 36, 24
(3) 12, 24, 36 (4) 24, 12, 12
Ans: (2) 12, 36, 24
53. How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 40 seeds in the Capsella plant –
(1) 50 (2) 40
(3) 80 (4) 20
Ans: (1) 50
54. The number of nuclei taking part in double fertilization are –
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five
Ans: (4) Five
55. In Angiosperm, if haploid number of chromosome is 12 then what will be the no. of chromosomes in integuments and synergids:
(1) 12, 12 (2) 24, 12
(3) 24, 24 (4) 12, 24
Ans: (2) 24, 12
56. How many meiotic divisions are required for the formation of 200 seeds of maize: (1) 200 (2) 400
(3) 250 (4) 300
Ans: (3) 250
57. In Angiosperm, if number of chromosomes in endosperm is 30, what will be the no. of chromosomes in nucellus –
(1) 15 (2) 30
(3) 20 (4) 40
Ans:(3) 20
58. Self-incompatibility:
I. is a device to prevent inbreeding
II. provides a biochemical block to self fertilization
III. ensures cross fertilization
IV. is governed by pollen-pistil interaction
V. is governed by series of multiple alleles
VI. prevents self pollen (from the same flower or other flowers of the same plant) from fertilising the ovules by inhibiting pollen germination of pollen tube growth in the pistil.
(1) All are correct
(2) All are wrong
(3) Only I, II, III are incorrect
(4) IV and V are wrong
Ans: (1) All are correct
59. Endosperm is completey consumed by developing embryo before the seed maturation or ex-albuminous/non-endospermic seeds are found in:
(1) pea, ground nut, beans
(2) coconut, castor
(3) maize, wheat, pea
(4) coconut, wheat
Ans: (1) pea, ground nut, beans
60. In albuminous seed, the food is stored in-
(1) Testa (2) Plumule
(3) Cotyledon (4) Endosperm
Ans: (4) Endosperm
61. One of the male gamete moves towards the egg cell & fuses with its nucleus; the process is known as: –
(1) Syngamy
(2) Triple fusion
(3) Double fertilization
(4) None
Ans: (1) Syngamy
62. Endosperm development precedes embryo development, the endosperm of angiospermic plant is: –
(1) Triploid (2) Diploid
(3) Haploid (4) Tetraploid
Ans: (1) Triploid
63. The part of pistil which acts as landing platform for pollen grain: –
(1) Stigma (2) Style
(3) Ovule (4) Overy
Ans: (1) Stigma
64. The inner most wall layer of anther is tapetum; the main function of tapetum is: –
(1) Divison (2) Support
(3) Nutrition (4) None
Ans: (3) Nutrition
65. Two non-motile male gamete in angiosperm is produced by: –
(1) Generative cell
(2) Microspore mother cell
(3) Vegetative cell
(4) Tube cell
Ans: (1) Generative cell
66. Which one of the following is false fruit? (1) Apple (2) Straw berry
(3) Cashew (4) All
Ans: (4) All
67. Aleurone layer that is protein rich found in some cereals is a part of: –
(1) Endosperm (2) Embryo
(3) Tegmen (4) Testa
Ans: (1) Endosperm